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Anti Tank OM1


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#1 William Keyser

William Keyser

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Posted 24 April 2014 - 11:26 PM

Hi guys

Can any one help why for example the german pak 40 is -2 OM1 while the british 6pdr is OM1  0. Seems to me that the german Paks should have at least a +1 on the OM1 stat.

 

William



#2 Bob Benge

Bob Benge

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Posted 18 May 2014 - 11:35 AM

Hi William,

 

Sorry for the delay in response to your post. I was wondering what is the basis is for your question? The reason I ask is that remember that OM1 is simply the guns accuracy, not its penetration.

 

As MP has evolved from it original roots, some many entries were carried on from one to the next and recalculations were not completed for everything. Thus some items may have slipped through. In this case, though this is not true. I went back over the calculations and the numbers hold up. The difference is the gun barrel length (caliber). The way our formulas are laid out the difference between the calibers results variance of OM1 between the two guns. They happen to fall on two side of the table that accounts for the difference between the two.


~ Bob Benge ~
ODGW Designer
Product Manager - Mein Panzer




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